I've done a bit of alcoholmaxxing tonight, so this may or may not make sense. Anyway, I'm looking at these two line graphs.
One shows a graph of circumcisions performed on newborn males in short-stay hospitals. Hospitals where you go in, have the baby, have a checkup, and then you're out. Hospitals for people who don't want to spend as much money or have other things they need to get done.
It, only decreases only 3% over 30 years, between 1980-2010.
And then we have this other line graph showing that the number of children born out of wedlock has increased from 19% or so to 41-ish%.
That's an increase of 22% over 30 years, between 1980-2010.
Can somebody make sense of this for me why the circumcision rates have only decreased 3% in short-stay hospitals but out of wedlock births has increased 22%?
Just remember inkwell "correlation does not imply causation".
One shows a graph of circumcisions performed on newborn males in short-stay hospitals. Hospitals where you go in, have the baby, have a checkup, and then you're out. Hospitals for people who don't want to spend as much money or have other things they need to get done.
It, only decreases only 3% over 30 years, between 1980-2010.
And then we have this other line graph showing that the number of children born out of wedlock has increased from 19% or so to 41-ish%.
That's an increase of 22% over 30 years, between 1980-2010.
Can somebody make sense of this for me why the circumcision rates have only decreased 3% in short-stay hospitals but out of wedlock births has increased 22%?
Just remember inkwell "correlation does not imply causation".
